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Renal Patient Blood Test Results




Urea

Uric Acid

Glucose

Amino Acid

Proteins

Normal Person

0.03

0.004

0.10

0.05

8.00

Patient I

0.030

0.004

0.50

0.05

8.00

Patient II

0.030

0.005

1.70

0.05

8.00

Patient III

0.03

0.050

0.10

0.05

8.00

Patient IV

0.03

0.004

0.10

0.06

4.00

____ 99. From the above table, which patient has probably just eaten some sugar?

a.

Patient I

c.

Patient III

b.

Patient II

d.

Patient IV

Composition (g/100 mL)




Component

Plasma

Filtrate

Urine

I

Urea

0.030

0.030

2.00

II

Uric acid

0.004

0.004

0.05

III

Glucose

0.100

0.100

0.00

IV

Amino acids

0.050

0.050

0.00

V

Salts

0.720

0.720

1.50

VI

Proteins

8.000

0.036

0.00

____ 100. A patient's test results are shown in the table above. According to the table above, which items are completely reabsorbed into the plasma?

a.

I, II, V

d.

III, IV, VI

b.

III, V, VI

e.

II, IV, V

c.

I, III, IV




____ 101. A patient's test results are shown in the table above. According to the above table, which items are excreted?

a.

I, II, V

d.

III, IV, VI

b.

III, V, VI

e.

II, IV, V

c.

I, III, IV




____ 102. The term used to describe the ability of a living organism to adjust to changing environmental conditions by regulating their internal processes is

a.

regulation

d.

feedback

b.

homeostasis

e.

metabolism

c.

inhibition




____ 103. The nitrogen that must be excreted comes from

a.

the metabolic breakdown of carbohydrates

b.

the nitric buffer system

c.

the deamination of proteins

d.

the atmosphere

____ 104. The collecting ducts in the kidney

a.

can actively transport water molecules actively into the urine

b.

are responsible for most of the reabsorption of water that occurs in the kidney

c.

determine to a large extent the final osmolality of urine

d.

are rendered impermeable to water by aldosterone

____ 105. A person who has experienced a considerable loss of mass, has a low blood calcium level, has protruding eyes, is easily agitated, and always feels cold is likely suffering from which of the following?

a.

diabetes insipidus

d.

a hyperactive parathyroid

b.

diabetes mellitus

e.

an adrenal tumor

c.

a hyperactive thyroid















____ 106. Which graph illustrates a person who may secrete too little glucagon?

a.

III

c.

IV

b.

I

d.

II and IV

____ 107. Which graph illustrates a person with a healthy pancreas?



a.

III

c.

IV

b.

I

d.

II and IV

____ 108. Which of the following statements about hormones is incorrect?



a.

they are produced by glands such as the thyroid

b.

they travel to different areas of the body

c.

they are carried by the blood

d.

they are used to communicate between different individuals

e.

they elicit specific biological responses from target cells

____ 109. Steroid hormones exert their effect by



a.

interacting with receptors on cell membranes

b.

a direct effect in the nucleus of a cell

c.

initiating formation of cyclic AMP

d.

initiating formation of cyclic GMP

____ 110. The graph below compares the rate absorption of glucose in the small intestine when thyroxine in the blood is either high (solid line) or low (broken line). The Y axis represents percent glucose absorbed, and the X axis indicates time.



The graph shows that glucose absorption



a.

occurs more rapidly when there is a low level of thyroxine in the blood

b.

occurs more slowly when there is a high level of thyroxine in the blood

c.

occurs more rapidly when there is a high level of thyroxine in the blood

d.

is independent of thyroxine level in the blood

____ 111. Which of the following endocrine glands is a direct extension of the nervous system?

a.

anterior pituitary gland

d.

thymus gland

b.

posterior pituitary gland

e.

adrenal cortex

c.

thyroid gland




____ 112. In an emergency situation

a.

digestions of sugars is accelerated

b.

glycogen is converted to glucose

c.

glucose is converted to glycogen

d.

endocrine suppression of glucose metabolism is experienced

____ 113. Adrenaline affects the flow of blood by which of the following?



a.

stimulating the blood cells

b.

stimulating the muscle of the heart

c.

increasing the amount of blood in the system

d.

causing the veins and arteries to constrict

____ 114. Small concentrations of hormone are needed to cause an effect on target cells. This occurs because



a.

hormones are fat soluble and easily penetrate the membranes of the nucleus

b.

hormones are huge molecules that remain active for years and can repeatedly stimulate the same cell

c.

the mechanism of hormonal action involves an enzyme cascade that amplifies the response to a hormone

d.

the mechanism of hormonal action involves the rapid replication of the hormone within the target cell to quickly magnify the hormone's effect

e.

the mechanism of hormonal actin involves memory cells that have had prior contact with the hormone, and immediately respond to its presence

____ 115. Progesterone is produced primarily in which of the following?



a.

adrenal cortex

d.

developing follicle

b.

anterior pituitary

e.

placenta

c.

corpus luteum



____ 116. Menstruation starts by which one of the following?



a.

sudden release of FSH from the pituitary

b.

lack of estrogen and progesterone due to degeneration of the corpus luteum

c.

sudden drop in LH

d.

increased release of estrogen and progesterone from the corpus luteum

____ 117. The growing follicle secretes which of the following hormone?



a.

LH

d.

estrogen

b.

testosterone

e.

FSH

c.

GnRH



____ 118. Charles Darwin is important to the study of evolution because he



a.

conducted genetic experiments with garden peas

b.

proposed that the environment could drive evolutionary change

c.

proposed a theory of evolution called natural selection

d.

proposed a theory of evolution called adaptations

e.

constructed a modern system used to classify organisms

____ 119. Thomas Malthus wrote a paper on the rate of population growth and the rate of the increase in food supply. Malthus proposed that



a.

at some point in the future, population will exceed food supply

b.

the rate of food production will always be greater than the population

c.

the distribution of food is a problem, but the supply of food is not.

d.

the rate of population growth has exceeded food production for at least 200 years

e.

population increases steadily, but food supply increases rapidly

____ 120. Charles Lyell wrote Principles of Geology. This book was important to the formation of the Theory of Evolution because it



a.

described how rocks form

b.

described how fossils form

c.

suggested that species do not change

d.

stated that natural processes that take place today are the same as those that took place in the past

e.

stated that organisms change by acquiring new characteristics during their life span

____ 121. The most desirable adaptations are

a.

structural adaptations

b.

behavioral adaptations

c.

physiological adaptations

d.

those that give an organism a survival advantage

e.

mutations

____ 122. The biochemical evidence for evolution is based on the concept that

a.

all organisms share identical DNA molecules and similar proteins

b.

the more similar the DNA of two species is, the more distantly they are related

c.

comparisons of the DNA and proteins of different species indicate the degree to which those species are related

d.

identical DNA molecules shared by present and extinct organisms suggest that they are descended from a common ancestor

e.

the DNA in all organisms came from their parents

____ 123. The term radioactive dating refers to

a.

the release of subatomic particles from an element

b.

atoms that have an unstable nuclear arrangement

c.

an element that is found in rock as it forms

d.

an element that is found in rock as it ages

e.

the time that is calculated by an examination of the elements present in a rock sample

____ 124. In zoos, lions and tigers can mate and produce fertile offspring. This does not occur in natural settings because of which of the following?

a.

Prezygotic mechanisms such as geographic isolation separated the populations.

b.

Postzygotic mechanisms such as geographic isolation separate the populations.

c.

Their DNA is too different to combine.

d.

Prezygotic mechanisms such as ecological isolation separate the populations.

e.

Postzygotic mechanisms such as ecological isolation separate the populations.

____ 125. One type of raspberry flowers in May and has fruit in June. Another type of raspberry flowers in July and has fruit in September. Greenhouse owners have been able to crossbreed these two types to produce a hybrid that has fruit in June and again in September. This hybrid does not occur in natural settings because of which of the following?



a.

Prezygotic mechanisms such as temporal isolation separate the populations.

b.

Postzygotic mechanisms such as temporal isolation separate the populations.

c.

Their DNA is too different to combine.

d.

Prezygotic mechanisms such as geographic isolation separate the populations.

e.

Postzygotic mechanisms such as geographic isolation separate the populations.

____ 126. Corn is a wind-pollinated plant. Pollen from many different types of plant are blown onto the stigma of the corn, but only corn pollen can fertilize the corn egg cells and hybrids do not form. This is because of which of the following?

a.

Prezygotic mechanisms such as temporal isolation separate the populations.

b.

Postzygotic mechanisms such as temporal isolation separate the populations.

c.

Their DNA is similar and can combine.

d.

Prezygotic mechanisms such as mechanical isolation separate the populations.

e.

Postzygotic mechanisms, such as mechanical isolation separate the populations.

____ 127. Mules and donkeys can be cross bred, but the offspring (mules) are sterile. Which of the following is an explanation for this?



a.

Prezygotic mechanisms such as behavioural isolation separate the populations.

b.

Postzygotic mechanisms such as behavioural isolation separate the populations.

c.

Their DNA is too different to combine.

d.

Prezygotic mechanisms such as mechanical isolation separate the populations.

e.

Postzygotic mechanisms such as mechanical isolation separate the populations.

____ 128. The term locus is defined as which of the following?



a.

the portion of the DNA molecule that codes for a particular polypeptide sequence

b.

a particular form of a DNA sequence that codes for a polypeptide

c.

the location along a chromosome of a particular DNA sequence

d.

the condition that exists when a pair of chromosomes has the same DNA sequence at the same location on each chromosome

e.

the condition that exists when a pair of chromosomes has different DNA sequences at the same location on each chromosome

____ 129. The term population is defined as of which of the following?



a.

the proportion of gene copies in a population of a given allele

b.

the total of all alleles within a species in a given location

c.

a gene that has only a single type of allele

d.

the proportion of a gene pair that is homozygous dominant, homozygous, recessive, or heterozygous

e.

the total of all individuals of the same species living in the same region

____ 130. The term genotype frequency is defined as of which of the following?

a.

the proportion of gene copies in a population of a given allele

b.

the total of all alleles within a species in a given location

c.

a gene that has only a single type of allele

d.

the proportion of gene pairs (homozygous dominant, homozygous,recessive, or heterozygous) in a group or population

e.

the total of all individuals of the same species living in the same region

____ 131. Recessive genes that produce harmful effects may remain in a gene pool because of which of the following?



a.

they are influenced by the Hardy-Weinberg principle

b.

they are not affected by the normal selection pressures

c.

they are transmitted to the offspring by heterozygous individuals

d.

their genotypes, and not their phenotypes, are usually expressed

e.

they are advantageous in most environments

____ 132. Jack pine and lodgepole pine are morphologically very similar, but cannot interbreed. The best explanation for this is that

a.

they are the same species

b.

each species lives in different habitats

c.

the two species evolved from a common ancestral population

d.

they did not diverge enough genetically while separated to evolve reproductive isolation mechanisms

e.

jack pine is wind pollinated, but lodgepole pine is pollinated by moths

____ 133. Unlike the North American forests, grasslands were not separated during the Pleistocene glaciation. Grasshopper sparrows and vesper sparrows are two grassland bird species that are found in the same general localities and do not interbreed. The best explanation for this situation is which of the following?



a.

the species are adapted to very different habitats

b.

the species have not diverged very much genetically

c.

the two sparrows should probably be considered one species

d.

the two species had already diverged before glaciation occurred

e.

the two sparrows nest during different seasons

____ 134. Lupinus tidestromii and Lupinus gracilentus belong to the legume family of plants. L. tidestromii is found in the coastal beach habitat and flowers from May to June, whereas L. gracilentus is found in subalpine habitats above 3000 m and flowers from July to August. Which statement describes these lupines?



a.

They are reproductively isolated.

b.

They are geographically isolated.

c.

They are the result of acquired characteristics.

d.

They are both reproductively and geographically isolated.

e.

They are actually one species that reacts differently to cold temperatures.

____ 135. Eriogonum latens and Eriogonum reniforme are two species of wild buckwheat. E. latens grows on dry, stony slopes above 2000 m and flowers from July to August. E. reniforme grows in sandy soils below 1500 m and flowers from March to June. Which statement describes these species of wild buckwheat?



a.

they are reproductively isolated

b.

they are geographically isolated

c.

they are the result of acquired characteristics

d.

they are both reproductively and geographically isolated

e.

they are actually one species that reacts differently to cold temperatures

____ 136. Macroevolution is defined as which of the following?



a.

the evolution of organisms with tissues into organisms with organs

b.

the change in the characteristics that are most common in the population

c.

the formation of several very different new species from an old species

d.

adaptations to the environment

e.

a series of random mutations in the population

____ 137. Fossil horses are much shorter than modern horses. This is considered to be an example of which of the following?



a.

parallel adaptation

d.

microevolution

b.

homology

e.

analogous structures

c.

vestigial structures




____ 138. The term used to include all of human-like species is which of the following?

a.

anthropoid

d.

hominid

b.

hominoid

e.

homo

c.

prosimian



____ 139. Theories that propose explanations for the origin of life were formed by which of the following scientists?



a.

Charles Darwin

d.

J.B.S. Haldane

b.

Alexander Oparin

e.

all of the above

c.

Stanley Miller




____ 140. A thermal proteinoid is

a.

a theory that proposes that life originated from nonliving matter

b.

a theory that proposes that life originated from materials that came to Earth from space

c.

a polypeptide that forms when amino acids polymerize on the surface of hot liquids

d.

a RNA molecule that is able to catalyze a chemical reaction

e.

a spherical lipid molecule that forms in water

____ 141. Australian marsupials show similar body plans to placental mammals. These are examples of which of the following?

a.

convergent evolution

d.

microevolution

b.

homology

e.

divergent evolution

c.

vestigial structures



____ 142. Darwin’s finches have a similar body plan, but increasingly different traits. These are examples of which of the following?



a.

convergent evolution

d.

microevolution

b.

homology

e.

adaptive radiation

c.

vestigial structures




____ 143. Which of the population dispersion patterns is most often found in natural populations?

a.

uniform dispersion

b.

clumped dispersion

c.

random dispersion

d.

all of these patterns are equally common

e.

none of the above

____ 144. The number of organisms of the same species living within the total area of their entire habitat is best known as which of the following?

a.

population size

d.

population dynamics

b.

ecological density

e.

none of the above

c.

crude density




____ 145. The most accurate method of determining the size of a group of stationary organisms is which of the following?

a.

quadrat sampling

d.

counting nests

b.

mark-recapture sampling

e.

all of the above

c.

technological tracking




____ 146. In a small mark-recapture study, 10 animals are marked, then released. Later, of 10 animals trapped, only 1 has a mark. What is the total size of the population?

a.

10 animals

d.

there is no way to determine the size

b.

100 animals

e.

none of the above

c.

1000 animals




____ 147. An orchard contains 20 apple trees in an area of 2.0 ha. Determine the density of the tree population.

a.

20 trees /ha

d.

10 trees/ha

b.

40 trees/ha

e.

4.0 trees/ha

c.

0.10 ha/tree




____ 148. In a population of birds being studied over a limited time period, 4 eggs hatch, 6 birds leave the area, 3 are eaten by cats, and 5 move into the area. What is the population change over the period of study?

a.

an increase of 2 birds

d.

a decrease of 2 birds

b.

an increase of 4 birds

e.

the population size did not change

c.

a decrease of 4 birds




____ 149. Under ideal conditions, a population of bacteria can grow to more than 10 in 24 h. This is a statement of the population's

a.

density

d.

growth rate

b.

carrying capacity

e.

logistic growth

c.

biotic potential




____ 150. A population showing low mortality rates until the individuals are past their reproductive years demonstrates which of the following?

a.

type I survivorship

d.

type IV survivorship

b.

type II survivorship

e.

none of the above

c.

type III survivorship




____ 151. Elephants are slow to reach sexual maturity and few offspring. An elephant population exhibits which of the following?

a.

a type I survivorship pattern

d.

a type IV survivorship pattern

b.

a type II survivorship pattern

e.

none of the above

c.

a type III survivorship pattern




____ 152. The following equation:

[(births + immigration) (deaths + emigration)]100

initial population size




is used to calculate

a.

population change

d.

exponential growth rate

b.

growth rate

e.

all of the above

c.

geometric expansion



____ 153. A smooth curve showing the long-term exponential growth of a population is usually which of the following?



a.

a straight line

d.

negatively sloped

b.

a J-shaped curve

e.

none of the above

c.

an S-shaped curve



____ 154. A smooth curve showing the long-term logistical growth of a population is usually which of the following?



a.

a straight line

d.

negatively sloped

b.

a J-shaped curve

e.

none of the above

c.

an S-shaped curve



____ 155. Polar bears kill and eat seals for survival. This is described as which of the following?



a.

predation

d.

resource partitioning

b.

parasitism

e.

the niche of the polar bear

c.

interspecific competition



____ 156. An ecological relationship between two species, where one species benefits and the other is harmed is which of the following?



a.

competition

d.

commensalism

b.

predation

e.

both b and c

c.

parasitism



____ 157. When attacked, the sea cucumber ejects its intestines. The predator attacks these allowing the animal an opportunity to escape. It will grow a new digestive system. This is an example of which of the following?



a.

chemical defence

d.

camouflage

b.

passive defence

e.

mimicry

c.

active defence



____ 158. The present estimate of the world's human population is closest to



a.

60 million

d.

6 billion

b.

6 million

e.

60 billion

c.

600 million



____ 159. The three plants domesticated first by early humans are which of the following?



a.

wheat, peas, and oats

d.

wheat, oats, and rice

b.

rice, oats, and corn

e.

wheat, corn, and rice

c.

beans, corn, and wheat



____ 160. The present distribution of the world's human population can best be described as



a.

clumped

d.

random

b.

uniform

e.

controlled

c.

planned



____ 161. Which of the following is not a result of the Industrial Revolution?



a.

increased food supply

b.

higher percentage of farming

c.

increase in carrying capacity of the Earth

d.

lower percentage of people farming

e.

decline in death rate

____ 162. A population pyramid showing rapid growth

a.

has a narrow base, and bulges as it extends upward

b.

shows an even age distribution for many decades

c.

narrows steadily from its base upward

d.

has a broad base and curves sharply upward

e.

has a narrow base and gradually widens

____ 163. A population pyramid that slopes steadily upward indicates which of the following?

a.

negative growth

d.

rapid growth

b.

zero growth

e.

an even population distribution

c.

slow growth



____ 164. A population pyramid having a narrow base, which bulges outwards as age increases, indicates which of the following?



a.

negative growth

d.

rapid growth

b.

zero growth

e.

none of the above

c.

slow growth



____ 165. According to Thompson's Demographic Transition Model, a country in the "transitional stage" will show which of the following?



a.

slow population growth due to high natality and mortality

b.

rapid population growth

c.

little population growth due to declining birth rates

d.

zero population growth or a decline

e.

an unpredictable growth pattern

____ 166. Increased agricultural use of appropriate regions of the world lead to which of the following?

a.

increased human birth rate

d.

all of the above

b.

increased human migration

e.

a and c only

c.

decreased human death rate




____ 167. Which of the following statements does not fit the findings of human demographics?

a.

Since the Industrial Revolution, birth rates have remained relatively stable.

b.

Since the Industrial Revolution, the population has grown uniformly in all regions.

c.

Since the Industrial Revolution, the population has increased by 1.6% per year.

d.

Since the Industrial Revolution, death rates have declined by over 50%.

e.

All of the above statements are supported by demographics.

____ 168. In countries with a high standard of living, the most important factor influencing population growth is which of the following?



a.

decreased infant mortality

d.

emigration

b.

decreased birth rate

e.

a and b only

c.

decreased mortality among adults



____ 169. According to Thompson's demographic transition model, a highly industrialized and economically secure country such as Canada should



a.

have a slow growth due to high birth rates and high death rates

b.

have a rapidly growing population

c.

show a stable population with little change in numbers

d.

have a slowly decreasing growth rate

e.

show exponential growth

____ 170. According to Thomas Malthus



a.

human growth is geometric; food production is geometric

b.

human growth is arithmetic; food production is arithmetic

c.

human growth is logistic; food production is arithmetic

d.

human growth is geometric; food production is arithmetic

e.

human growth is arithmetic; food production is geometric

____ 171. As the world's population grows, increased food production is necessary for survival. Which of the following is true of world grain production over the last 15 years?



a.

Total food production has increased.

b.

Food production per capita has decline.

c.

Total food production has decreased.

d.

Total food production has stabilized.

e.

Both a and b are true.

____ 172. Which of the following regions are showing signs of malnutrition?

a.

Africa

d.

all of the above

b.

Latin America

e.

a and b only

c.

South Asia



____ 173. A food chain consists of grain, cattle, and human populations. If 700 kJ in harvested grain is fed to the cattle, how much energy is available for the human population?



a.

70 kJ

d.

0.70 kJ

b.

7.0 kJ

e.

700 kJ

c.

63 kJ



____ 174. Which of the following food chains would be best from an energy-transfer point of view?



a.

grain  human

b.

grain  cattle  human

c.

algae  insect  trout  human

d.

algae  insect  fish  human

e.

algae  insect  frog  fish  human

____ 175. A large city such as Toronto attracts many people who demand low-density housing surrounding the high-density city. This is a description of which of the following?



a.

ecological footprint

d.

density-dependent housing

b.

urban sprawl

e.

an eco-city

c.

suburban over-population




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