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Evolution Practice Multiple Choice

Multiple Choice

Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____ 1. The Theory of Evolution by Acquired Characteristics did not include which of the following?



a.

organisms can change during their own lifetime

b.

physical characteristics cannot be passed to offspring

c.

organisms were originally created by a Creator

d.

strenuous activities can change organisms

e.

the environment plays a role in selecting favourable characteristics

____ 2. Which of the following scientists was associated with forming the Theory of Evolution by Natural Selection?



a.

Thomas Malthus

d.

Charles Darwin

b.

Charles Lyell

e.

Georges Cuvier

c.

Jean Baptiste Lamarck



____ 3. Which of the following scientists was associated with forming the Theory of Evolution by Acquired Characteristics?



a.

Thomas Malthus

d.

Charles Darwin

b.

Charles Lyell

e.

Georges Cuvier

c.

Jean Baptiste Lamarck



____ 4. During the early stages of pregnancy, human embryos have paired gill pouches. This is an example of



a.

macroevolution

d.

development

b.

molecular record

e.

homology

c.

vestigial structures



____ 5. In North America, there lives a gliding rodent, the flying squirrel. In Australia, there lives a gliding marsupial, the sugar glider. This is an example of



a.

convergent evolution

d.

vestigial structures

b.

homology

e.

molecular record

c.

macroevolution



____ 6. Adaptations are



a.

the result of natural selection

b.

the change in the characteristics that are most common in the population

c.

caused by a series of random mutations in the population

d.

influenced by the environment in which the organism lives

e.

all of the above

____ 7. The basic structure of the hemoglobin molecule is the same in humans, penguins ,and salmon. This is considered to be an example of



a.

parallel adaptation

d.

microevolution

b.

homology

e.

molecular record

c.

vestigial structures



____ 8. Carl Linnaeus is important to the study of evolution because he



a.

conducted genetic experiments with garden peas

b.

proposed that the environment could drive evolutionary change

c.

proposed a theory of evolution called natural selection

d.

proposed a theory of evolution called adaptations

e.

constructed a modern system used to classify organisms

____ 9. Gregor Mendel is important to the study of evolution because he



a.

conducted genetic experiments with garden peas

b.

proposed that the environment could drive evolutionary change

c.

proposed a theory of evolution called natural selection

d.

proposed a theory of evolution called adaptations

e.

constructed a modern system used to classify organisms

____ 10. Charles Darwin is important to the study of evolution because he



a.

conducted genetic experiments with garden peas

b.

proposed that the environment could drive evolutionary change

c.

proposed a theory of evolution called natural selection

d.

proposed a theory of evolution called adaptations

e.

constructed a modern system used to classify organisms

____ 11. Jean Baptiste Lamarck is important to the study of evolution because he



a.

conducted genetic experiments with garden peas

b.

proposed that the environment could drive evolutionary change

c.

proposed a theory of evolution called natural selection

d.

proposed a theory of evolution called adaptations

e.

constructed a modern system used to classify organisms

____ 12. Thomas Malthus wrote a paper on the rate of population growth and the rate of the increase in food supply. Malthus proposed that



a.

at some point in the future, population will exceed food supply

b.

the rate of food production will always be greater than the population

c.

the distribution of food is a problem, but the supply of food is not.

d.

the rate of population growth has exceeded food production for at least 200 years

e.

population increases steadily, but food supply increases rapidly

____ 13. Charles Lyell wrote Principles of Geology. This book was important to the formation of the Theory of Evolution because it



a.

described how rocks form

b.

described how fossils form

c.

suggested that species do not change

d.

stated that natural processes that take place today are the same as those that took place in the past

e.

stated that organisms change by acquiring new characteristics during their life span

____ 14. Charles Lyell wrote Principles of Geology. This book was important to the formation of the Theory of Evolution because it



a.

described how rocks form

b.

described how fossils form

c.

suggested that the Earth was 6000 years old

d.

suggested that the Earth was more than 100 000 years old

e.

suggested that species do not change

____ 15. Which of the following scientists did not propose a theory to explain evolution?



a.

Darwin

d.

Lyell

b.

Lamarck

e.

Wallace

c.

Malthus



____ 16. A population of organisms is considered to be adapted to its environment if



a.

competition among neighbouring populations is minimal

b.

successive generations of offspring are free of any inheritable variations

c.

environmental changes are few, so as not to influence closely related species

d.

successive generations of offspring thrive in spite of minor environmental fluctuations

e.

the population continues to increase

____ 17. The most desirable adaptations are



a.

structural adaptations

b.

behavioral adaptations

c.

physiological adaptations

d.

those that give an organism a survival advantage

e.

mutations

____ 18. The most impressive direct evidence of evolution comes from the study of



a.

the fossil record

b.

present-day organisms

c.

the geographic distribution of plant and animal species

d.

homologous and analogous structures present in embryological development

e.

RNA structure

____ 19. Most fossils are found in



a.

sand

d.

sandstone and limestone

b.

glacial ice

e.

tar pits and peat bogs

c.

volcanic rock



____ 20. The evolutionary history of mollusks and reptiles is known much better than that of the flatworms. Why?



a.

Flatworms decayed quickly.

b.

Shells and bones fossilized readily.

c.

Mollusks and reptiles lived in habitats where sediments would quickly protect their remains.

d.

Flatworm fossils form in deep oceans.

e.

All the above statements are correct.

____ 21. Hormones such as insulin, cortisone, and ACTH are extracted from cattle and swine. The fact that these may be used successfully to treat humans illustrates



a.

genetic variability

d.

biochemical copying

b.

homology

e.

a recent common ancestor

c.

embryonic similarity



____ 22. The biochemical evidence for evolution is based on the concept that



a.

all organisms share identical DNA molecules and similar proteins

b.

the more similar the DNA of two species is, the more distantly they are related

c.

comparisons of the DNA and proteins of different species indicate the degree to which those species are related

d.

identical DNA molecules shared by present and extinct organisms suggest that they are descended from a common ancestor

e.

the DNA in all organisms came from their parents

____ 23. The major weakness in Lamarck's explanation of evolution is the fact that



a.

he knew nothing of genetic theory

b.

mutations were not part of his explanation

c.

acquired characteristics cannot be passed on

d.

organisms cannot develop certain structures through use

e.

no fossils had been found

____ 24. In order for inheritable variations to produce structural or physiological adaptations and influence evolution they must



a.

produce a strain on the environment

b.

allow the organism to live in new environments

c.

contribute to ecological stability within the population

d.

not be affected by random interbreeding between populations

e.

change DNA structure

____ 25. Which of the following is a definition of evolution?



a.

a process by which populations exhibit gradual changes over several generations

b.

a theory that best describes how species living today are descendants of species of past generations

c.

provides an explanation of how the great biological diversity present today occurred and is increasing

d.

an explanation of how mutations change the composition of a population

e.

all of the above

____ 26. Birds, turtles and snakes all lay eggs. This is considered to be an example of



a.

parallel adaptation

d.

microevolution

b.

convergence

e.

analogous structures

c.

vestigial structures



____ 27. The term radioactive refers to



a.

the release of subatomic particles from an element

b.

atoms that have an unstable nuclear arrangement

c.

an element that is found in rock as it forms

d.

an element that is found in rock as it ages

e.

the time that is calculated by an examination of the elements present in a rock sample

____ 28. The term radioactive dating refers to



a.

the release of subatomic particles from an element

b.

atoms that have an unstable nuclear arrangement

c.

an element that is found in rock as it forms

d.

an element that is found in rock as it ages

e.

the time that is calculated by an examination of the elements present in a rock sample

____ 29. If a rock sample is thought to be approximately 25 000 years old, which parent isotope is most likely to be measured?



a.

carbon 12

d.

potassium 40

b.

carbon 14

e.

uranium 235

c.

nitrogen 14



____ 30. If a rock sample is thought to be approximately 25  106 years old, which parent isotope is most likely to be measured?



a.

argon 40

d.

potassium 40

b.

carbon 14

e.

uranium 235

c.

nitrogen 14



____ 31. When calculating the age of a rock sample, the correct method is to compare the ratios of the parent isotope ____ to the daughter isotope ____.



a.

nitrogen 14; carbon 14

d.

lead 207; uranium 235

b.

lead 235; uranium 207

e.

carbon 12; nitrogen 14

c.

potassium 40; argon 40



____ 32. In zoos, lions and tigers can mate and produce fertile offspring. This does not occur in natural settings because of which of the following?



a.

Postzygotic mechanisms isolate the populations.

b.

Their DNA is too different to combine.

c.

Lions live in Africa and tigers do not.

d.

They are different species, and different species cannot interbreed.

e.

Lions hunt in groups on grasslands, and tigers hunt alone in the forest.

____ 33. In zoos, lions and tigers can mate and produce fertile offspring. Evidence shows that lions and tigers lived in the same areas 1000 years ago, and yet there is no evidence that they interbred. The most likely explanation for this is that



a.

postzygotic mechanisms isolated the populations

b.

their DNA is too different to combine

c.

their offspring did not form fossils and so no evidence exists

d.

they are different species, and different species cannot interbreed

e.

lions hunt in groups on grasslands, and tigers hunt alone in the forest

____ 34. In zoos, wolves and coyotes can mate and produce fertile offspring. This does not occur in natural settings because of which of the following?



a.

Postzygotic mechanisms isolate the populations.

b.

Their DNA is too different to combine.

c.

Wolves live in Canada and coyotes do not.

d.

They are different species ,and different species cannot interbreed.

e.

Wolves hunt in groups in forests ,and coyotes hunt alone in the grasslands and deserts.

____ 35. In zoos, lions and tigers can mate and produce fertile offspring. This does not occur in natural settings because of which of the following?



a.

Prezygotic mechanisms such as geographic isolation separated the populations.

b.

Postzygotic mechanisms such as geographic isolation separate the populations.

c.

Their DNA is too different to combine.

d.

Prezygotic mechanisms such as ecological isolation separate the populations.

e.

Postzygotic mechanisms such as ecological isolation separate the populations.

____ 36. In zoos, wolves and coyotes can mate and produce fertile offspring. This does not occur in natural settings because of which of the following?



a.

Prezygotic mechanisms such as geographic isolation separate the populations.

b.

Postzygotic mechanisms such as geographic isolation separate the populations.

c.

Their DNA is too different to combine.

d.

Prezygotic mechanisms such as ecological isolation separate the populations.

e.

Postzygotic mechanisms such as ecological isolation separate the populations.

____ 37. In zoos, wolves and coyotes can mate and produce fertile offspring. This does not occur in natural settings because of which of the following?



a.

Prezygotic mechanisms such as temporal isolation separate the populations.

b.

Postzygotic mechanisms such as temporal isolation separate the populations.

c.

Their DNA is too different to combine.

d.

Prezygotic mechanisms such as behavioral isolation separate the populations.

e.

Postzygotic mechanisms such as behavioral isolation separate the populations.

____ 38. One type of raspberry flowers in May and has fruit in June. Another type of raspberry flowers in July and has fruit in September. Greenhouse owners have been able to crossbreed these two types to produce a hybrid that has fruit in June and again in September. This hybrid does not occur in natural settings because of which of the following?



a.

Prezygotic mechanisms such as temporal isolation separate the populations.

b.

Postzygotic mechanisms such as temporal isolation separate the populations.

c.

Their DNA is too different to combine.

d.

Prezygotic mechanisms such as geographic isolation separate the populations.

e.

Postzygotic mechanisms such as geographic isolation separate the populations.

____ 39. Corn is a wind-pollinated plant. Pollen from many different types of plant are blown onto the stigma of the corn, but only corn pollen can fertilize the corn egg cells and hybrids do not form. This is because of which of the following?



a.

Prezygotic mechanisms such as temporal isolation separate the populations.

b.

Postzygotic mechanisms such as temporal isolation separate the populations.

c.

Their DNA is similar and can combine.

d.

Prezygotic mechanisms such as mechanical isolation separate the populations.

e.

Postzygotic mechanisms, such as mechanical isolation separate the populations.

____ 40. Mules and donkeys can be cross bred, but the offspring (mules) are sterile. Which of the following is an explanation for this?



a.

Prezygotic mechanisms such as behavioural isolation separate the populations.

b.

Postzygotic mechanisms such as behavioural isolation separate the populations.

c.

Their DNA is too different to combine.

d.

Prezygotic mechanisms such as mechanical isolation separate the populations.

e.

Postzygotic mechanisms such as mechanical isolation separate the populations.

____ 41. The term gene is defined as of which of the following?



a.

the portion of the DNA molecule that codes for a particular polypeptide sequence

b.

a particular form of the DNA sequence that codes for a polypeptide

c.

the location along a chromosome of a particular DNA sequence

d.

the condition that exists when a pair of chromosomes has the same DNA sequence at the same location on each chromosome

e.

the condition that exists when a pair of chromosomes have different DNA sequences at the same location on each chromosome

____ 42. The term locus is defined as which of the following?



a.

the portion of the DNA molecule that codes for a particular polypeptide sequence

b.

a particular form of a DNA sequence that codes for a polypeptide

c.

the location along a chromosome of a particular DNA sequence

d.

the condition that exists when a pair of chromosomes has the same DNA sequence at the same location on each chromosome

e.

the condition that exists when a pair of chromosomes has different DNA sequences at the same location on each chromosome

____ 43. The term allele is defined as which of the following?



a.

the portion of the DNA molecule that codes for a particular polypeptide sequence

b.

a particular form of a DNA sequence that codes for a polypeptide

c.

the location along a chromosome of a particular DNA sequence

d.

the condition that exists when a pair of chromosomes has the same DNA sequence at the same location on each chromosome

e.

the condition that exists when a pair of chromosomes has different DNA sequences at the same location on each chromosome

____ 44. The term heterozygous is defined as of which of the following?



a.

the portion of the DNA molecule that codes for a particular polypeptide sequence

b.

a particular form of a DNA sequence that codes for a polypeptide

c.

the location along a chromosome of a particular DNA sequence

d.

the condition that exists when a pair of chromosomes has the same DNA sequence at the same location on each chromosome

e.

the condition that exists when a pair of chromosomes has different DNA sequences at the same location on each chromosome

____ 45. The term homozygous is defined as of which of the following?



a.

the portion of the DNA molecule that codes for a particular polypeptide sequence

b.

a particular form of a DNA sequence that codes for a polypeptide

c.

the location along a chromosome of a particular DNA sequence

d.

the condition that exists when a pair of chromosomes has the same DNA sequence at the same location on each chromosome

e.

the condition that exists when a pair of chromosomes has different DNA sequences at the same location on each chromosome

____ 46. The term pseudogene is defined as which of the following?



a.

the portion of the DNA molecule that codes for a particular polypeptide sequence

b.

a particular form of the DNA molecule as found on one chromosome of a pair

c.

the condition that exists when a pair of chromosomes has the same DNA sequence at the same location on each chromosome

d.

the condition that exists when a pair of chromosomes has the same DNA sequence at the same location on each chromosome, but the sequence on one chromosome is not transcribed

e.

the condition that exists when a pair of chromosomes has different DNA sequences at the same location on each chromosome

____ 47. The term genome is defined as which of the following?



a.

the complete set of DNA sequences in an organism

b.

the set of all alleles possessed by an individual organism

c.

observable traits that are formed by the interact of genes and the environment

d.

individuals with three or more complete sets of chromosomes

e.

the total of all alleles within a population

____ 48. The term genotype is defined as which of the following?



a.

the complete set of DNA sequences in an organism

b.

the set of all alleles possessed by an individual organism

c.

observable traits that are formed by the interaction of genes and the environment

d.

individuals with three or more complete sets of chromosomes

e.

the total of all alleles within a population

____ 49. The term phenotype is defined as which of the following?



a.

the complete set of DNA sequences in an organism

b.

the set of all alleles possessed by an individual organism

c.

observable traits that are formed by the interaction of genes and the environment

d.

individuals with three or more complete sets of chromosomes

e.

the total of all alleles within a population

____ 50. The term polyploid is defined as of which of the following?



a.

the complete set of DNA sequences in an organism

b.

the set of all alleles possessed by an individual organism

c.

observable traits that are formed by the interaction of genes and the environment

d.

individuals with three or more complete sets of chromosomes

e.

the total of all alleles within a population

____ 51. The term gene pool is defined as of which of the following?



a.

the complete set of DNA sequences in an organism

b.

the set of all alleles possessed by an individual organism

c.

observable traits that are formed by the interaction of genes and the environment

d.

individuals with three or more complete sets of chromosomes

e.

the total of all alleles within a population

____ 52. The term population is defined as of which of the following?



a.

the proportion of gene copies in a population of a given allele

b.

the total of all alleles within a species in a given location

c.

a gene that has only a single type of allele

d.

the proportion of a gene pair that is homozygous dominant, homozygous, recessive, or heterozygous

e.

the total of all individuals of the same species living in the same region

____ 53. The term genotype frequency is defined as of which of the following?



a.

the proportion of gene copies in a population of a given allele

b.

the total of all alleles within a species in a given location

c.

a gene that has only a single type of allele

d.

the proportion of gene pairs (homozygous dominant, homozygous,recessive, or heterozygous) in a group or population

e.

the total of all individuals of the same species living in the same region

____ 54. The term allele frequency is defined as of which of the following?



a.

the proportion of gene copies in a population of a given allele

b.

the total of all alleles within a species in a given location

c.

a gene that has only a single type of allele

d.

the proportion of a gene pair that is homozygous, dominant, homozygous, recessive, or heterozygous

e.

the total of all individuals of the same species living in the same region

____ 55. The term "fixed," when applied to DNA sequences, is defined as of which of the following?



a.

the proportion of gene copies in a population of a given allele

b.

the total of all alleles within a species in a given location

c.

a gene that has only a single type of allele

d.

the proportion of a gene pair that is homozygous,dominant, homozygous ,recessive,or heterozygous

e.

the total of all individuals of the same species living in the same region

____ 56. The term evolution is defined as of which of the following?



a.

any change in gene or allele frequencies in a population

b.

any random change in gene or allele frequencies in a small population

c.

a rapid population decrease

d.

the establishment of a population in a new region

e.

the movement of alleles from one population to another

____ 57. The term genetic drift is defined as of which of the following?



a.

any change in gene or allele frequencies in a population

b.

any random change in gene or allele frequencies in a small population

c.

a rapid population decrease

d.

the establishment of a population in a new region

e.

the movement of alleles from one population to another

____ 58. The term bottleneck effect is defined as of which of the following?



a.

any change in gene or allele frequencies in a population

b.

any random change in gene or allele frequencies in a small population

c.

a rapid population decrease

d.

the establishment of a population in a new region

e.

the movement of alleles from one population to another

____ 59. The term founder effect is defined as of which of the following?



a.

any change in gene or allele frequencies in a population

b.

any random change in gene or allele frequencies in a small population

c.

a rapid population decrease

d.

the establishment of a population in a new region

e.

the movement of alleles from one population to another

____ 60. The term gene flow is defined as of which of the following?



a.

any change in gene or allele frequencies in a population

b.

any random change in gene or allele frequencies in a small population

c.

a rapid population decrease

d.

the establishment of a population in a new region

e.

the movement of alleles from one population to another

____ 61. Recessive genes that produce harmful effects may remain in a gene pool because of which of the following?



a.

they are influenced by the Hardy-Weinberg principle

b.

they are not affected by the normal selection pressures

c.

they are transmitted to the offspring by heterozygous individuals

d.

their genotypes, and not their phenotypes, are usually expressed

e.

they are advantageous in most environments

____ 62. The relationship of gene frequencies in populations is expressed mathematically as which of the following?



a.

chi square test

d.

Watson and Crick model

b.

theory of natural selection

e.

median values

c.

Hardy-Weinberg principle



____ 63. Gene frequencies can be expected to change if



a.

there is no migration

b.

populations remain large

c.

heritable mutations occur

d.

mating is random and all genotypes have equal viability

e.

rapid change occurs in the environment

____ 64. Use this study of one species of microorganism in a nutrient solution to answer the following question.

Observation 1: Two colourless microorganisms placed in the solution give rise, by sexual reproduction, to 100 000 microorganisms in 7 days. A pair of these descendants also give rise to 100 000 microorganisms in 7 days if placed in a fresh solution.

Observation 2: The individuals in the population differ slightly in size, colour, and shape.

Observation 3: After several weeks in one solution, the proportion of green individuals in the population increases.

The most likely explanation for Observation 2 is that



a.

some traits are environmentally controlled

b.

genetic variability is common in most populations

c.

the rate of mutation is greater in large populations

d.

the population consists of three or more different species

e.

the organism is photosynthetic

____ 65. Jack pine and lodgepole pine are morphologically very similar, but cannot interbreed. The best explanation for this is that



a.

they are the same species

b.

each species lives in different habitats

c.

the two species evolved from a common ancestral population

d.

they did not diverge enough genetically while separated to evolve reproductive isolation mechanisms

e.

jack pine is wind pollinated, but lodgepole pine is pollinated by moths

____ 66. Baltimore orioles and Bullock's orioles differ in appearance, song, and habitat preferences, yet they frequently interbreed to form hybrids. The best explanation for this situation is which of the following?



a.

the two species are genetically very different

b.

the two populations have adapted to the same environment

c.

the two populations have evolved adaptations to different environments

d.

a reproductive isolating mechanism evolved while the populations were separated

e.

the two species are evolving to form a single, hybrid species

____ 67. Unlike the North American forests, grasslands were not separated during the Pleistocene glaciation. Grasshopper sparrows and vesper sparrows are two grassland bird species that are found in the same general localities and do not interbreed. The best explanation for this situation is which of the following?



a.

the species are adapted to very different habitats

b.

the species have not diverged very much genetically

c.

the two sparrows should probably be considered one species

d.

the two species had already diverged before glaciation occurred

e.

the two sparrows nest during different seasons

____ 68. Lupinus tidestromii and Lupinus gracilentus belong to the legume family of plants. L. tidestromii is found in the coastal beach habitat and flowers from May to June, whereas L. gracilentus is found in subalpine habitats above 3000 m and flowers from July to August. Which statement describes these lupines?



a.

They are reproductively isolated.

b.

They are geographically isolated.

c.

They are the result of acquired characteristics.

d.

They are both reproductively and geographically isolated.

e.

They are actually one species that reacts differently to cold temperatures.

____ 69. Eriogonum latens and Eriogonum reniforme are two species of wild buckwheat. E. latens grows on dry, stony slopes above 2000 m and flowers from July to August. E. reniforme grows in sandy soils below 1500 m and flowers from March to June. Which statement describes these species of wild buckwheat?



a.

they are reproductively isolated

b.

they are geographically isolated

c.

they are the result of acquired characteristics

d.

they are both reproductively and geographically isolated

e.

they are actually one species that reacts differently to cold temperatures

____ 70. The Galapagos Islands contain a number of unique species. These are probably the result of



a.

lack of competition

b.

geographic isolation

c.

too short a time for evolution to occur

d.

both isolation and lack of competition

e.

migration from the mainland

____ 71. A species of flying squirrel inhabited an island. Ashes from a nearby volcano killed much of the vegetation, including all the trees. A few squirrels survived. Recently the squirrels were reported to be abundant, living among the rocks and shrubs now covering the island. In the present population, the "flight membranes" are mostly too small to be functional. The most probable explanation for this change is which of the following?



a.

a new type of squirrel was introduced to the island

b.

natural selection no longer favoured those who could fly

c.

the squirrels had no chance to fly so the membranes shrivelled

d.

young squirrels were not taught to fly by their parents, so the membranes did not develop

e.

all the squirrels that could fly left the island

____ 72. Organisms that have existed relatively unchanged for several million years are usually which of the following?



a.

have long life spans

b.

are found in stable environments

c.

are top carnivores with few enemies

d.

produce enormous numbers of offspring

e.

become extinct

____ 73. The modern concept of the species is based upon which of the following?



a.

geographic isolation

b.

differences in behaviour

c.

differences in morphology (body structure)

d.

the ability of groups of organisms to interbreed

e.

a common habitat

____ 74. Organisms are of the same species if they are able to breed and produce which of the following?



a.

sterile offspring

b.

normal offspring in the wild

c.

litter with fertile and sterile offspring

d.

normal offspring in controlled conditions

e.

expanding populations

____ 75. Which of the following best indicates that speciation has occurred?



a.

appearance of different colour features

b.

high mutation rate and low variability

c.

location on an island far from the mainland

d.

two groups overlap geographically and do not interbreed

e.

stable population

____ 76. Microevolution is defined as which of the following?



a.

the evolution of microscopic organisms into multicellular organisms

b.

changes in gene frequencies and phenotypic traits within populations and species

c.

the formation of several very different new species from an old species

d.

adaptations to the environment

e.

a series of random mutations in the population

____ 77. Macroevolution is defined as which of the following?



a.

the evolution of organisms with tissues into organisms with organs

b.

the change in the characteristics that are most common in the population

c.

the formation of several very different new species from an old species

d.

adaptations to the environment

e.

a series of random mutations in the population

____ 78. Fossil horses are much shorter than modern horses. This is considered to be an example of which of the following?



a.

parallel adaptation

d.

microevolution

b.

homology

e.

analogous structures

c.

vestigial structures



____ 79. The term used to include only the most modern humans is which of the following?



a.

anthropoid

d.

hominid

b.

hominoid

e.

homo

c.

prosimian



____ 80. The term used to include all of the older primates, including lemurs and tarsiers ,is which of the following?



a.

anthropoid

d.

hominid

b.

hominoid

e.

homo

c.

prosimian



____ 81. The term used to include the tailless primates, apes ,and humans is which of the following?



a.

anthropoid

d.

hominid

b.

hominoid

e.

homo

c.

prosimian



____ 82. The term used to include the higher primates, including monkeys, apes, and humans, is which of the following?



a.

anthropoid

d.

hominid

b.

hominoid

e.

homo

c.

prosimian



____ 83. The term used to include all of human-like species is which of the following?



a.

anthropoid

d.

hominid

b.

hominoid

e.

homo

c.

prosimian



____ 84. The age of the earth is estimated to be approximately



a.

4.6 billion years

d.

4.0 billion years

b.

1.5 billion years

e.

3 billion years

c.

2.1 billion years



____ 85. Theories that propose explanations for the origin of life were formed by which of the following scientists?



a.

Charles Darwin

d.

J.B.S. Haldane

b.

Alexander Oparin

e.

all of the above

c.

Stanley Miller



____ 86. Panaspermia is



a.

a theory that proposes that life originated from non-living matter

b.

a theory that proposes that life originated from materials that came to Earth from space

c.

a polypeptide that forms when amino acids polymerize on the surface of hot liquids

d.

a RNA molecule that is able to catalyze a chemical reaction

e.

a spherical lipid molecule that forms in water

____ 87. A liposome is



a.

a theory that proposes that life originated from non-living matter

b.

a theory that proposes that life originated from materials that came to Earth from space

c.

a polypeptide that forms when amino acids polymerize on the surface of hot liquids

d.

a RNA molecule that is able to catalyze a chemical reaction

e.

a spherical lipid molecule that forms in water

____ 88. A ribozyme is



a.

a theory that proposes that life originated from nonliving matter

b.

a theory that proposes that life originated from materials that came to Earth from space

c.

a polypeptide that forms when amino acids polymerize on the surface of hot liquids

d.

a RNA molecule that is able to catalyze a chemical reaction

e.

a spherical lipid molecule that forms in water

____ 89. A thermal proteinoid is



a.

a theory that proposes that life originated from nonliving matter

b.

a theory that proposes that life originated from materials that came to Earth from space

c.

a polypeptide that forms when amino acids polymerize on the surface of hot liquids

d.

a RNA molecule that is able to catalyze a chemical reaction

e.

a spherical lipid molecule that forms in water

____ 90. Primary Abiogenesis is



a.

a theory that proposes that life originated from nonliving matter.

b.

a theory that proposes that life originated from materials that came to Earth from space.

c.

a polypeptide that forms when amino acids polymerize on the surface of hot liquids.

d.

a RNA molecule that is able to catalyze a chemical reaction.

e.

a spherical lipid molecule that forms in water.

____ 91. Which of the following is

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